GOVERNMENT

1. The follow are the key factors which influenced Nigeria foreign relations except

(A) peaceful co-existence
(B) (ANS) economic dependence
(C) non-interference
(D) international co-operation

2. The first African military coup in Egypt occurred (A) 1951
   (B) 1952
   (C) (ANS) 1953
   (D) 1954
3. Which of the following is not an accepted way of resolving international conflict?

(A) diplomacy
(B) propaganda
(C) military force
(D) (ANS) nuclear war

4. Citizens who are legally qualified to vote form

(A) political parties
(B) trade union congress
(C) members of the House of Assembly
(D) (ANS) the electorate

5. The Commonwealth is…

(A) an economic organisation
(B) (ANS) made up of all independence ex-colonies of Britain (ANS)

(C) made up of all countries who are friendly with Britain
(D) made up of independent European countries

6. The first elected Executive President of Nigeria was
   (A) (ANS) Sheu Shagari
   (B) Umaru Yaradua
   (C) Nnamdi Azikwe
   (D) Olusegun Obasanjo
7. Nigeria became a federation of 19 states in
   (A) 1996
   (B) 1861
   (C) (ANS) 1976
   (D) 1979
8. Under the 1979 Constitution, members of the Federal Executive Council were called
   (A) (ANS) ministers
   (B) commissioners
   (C) senators
   (D) judges
9. All the following were frontline fighters for Nigeria’s independence except
   (A) (ANS) Olu Fale
   (B) Nnamdi Azikwe
   (C) Obafemi Awolowo
   (D) Tafawa Balewa
10. In a unitary system of government
    (A) parliament is very weak
    (B) (ANS) there is high degree of centralisation
    (C) political power is diffused
    (D) there is low degree of centralisation
11. Which of the following is not a means by which government maintains law and order
    (A) law making
    (B) maintenance of police and other security agencies
    (C) provision of socio-economic services
    (D) (ANS) establishment of provisional association
12. Nigeria’s diplomatic representative in Britain is known as
    (A) (ANS) high commissioner
    (B) ambassador
    (C) plenipotentiary
    (D) permanent representative
13. Fascism emphasizes
    (A) equality
    (B) individualism
    (C) (ANS) totalitarianism
    (D) communism
    14 Government by the few for the interest of the few is known as
    (A) monarchy
    (B) dictatorship
    (C) autocracy
    (D) (ANS) oligarchy
14. The doctrine of separation of powers is associated with
    (A) Locke
    (B) Marx
    (C) (ANS) Montesquieu
    (D) Hobbes
15. The ECOWAS Monitoring Group (ECOMOG) was organised to maintain peace in
    (A) Guinea
    (B) Benin Republic
    (C) (ANS) Liberia
    (D) Chad
16. Which of the following principle officials of the house is not an elected parliamentarian?
    (A) leader
    (B) speaker
    (C) (ANS) clerk
    (D) chief whip
17. The ‘Uniting for Peace’ ‘esolution of the UNO was adopted in
    (A) (ANS) 1945
    (B) 1947
    (C) 1950
    (D) 1960
18. A tax law emanates from
    (A) the speaker
    (B) (ANS) a public bill
    (C) a judicial bill
    (D) private bill
19. The process through which people develop their political attitude is called

(A) politicisation
(B) (ANS) political socialisation
(C) political mobilisation
(D) political dissemination

21. Which of the following is not an agent of political socialisation?

(A) (ANS) tourism
(B) family
(C) mass media
(D) peer group

22. Government can be described as the art of

(A) making constitutions
(B) collecting taxes
(C) engineering
(D) (ANS) making and enforcing laws

23. An election in which people vote for issues of public policy rather than candidates is known as a

(A) mini election
(B) bye-election
(C) party primary
(D) (ANS) referendum

24. Power is transformed into authority through

(A) force
(B) prayers
(C) (ANS) legitimacy
(C) influence

25. The concept of sovereignty was popularised by

(A) J.J. Rousseau
(B) (ANS) A.V. Dicey
(C) C.L. Montesquieu
(D) Jean Bodin

26. Power under military rule in Nigeria can be said to be

(A) absolutely separated
(B) absolutely fussed
(C) more separated than fussed
(D) (ANS) absolutely centralised

27. How many Nigerians were elected into the Legislative Council when the elective principle was introduced in 1922
    (A) two
    (B) three
    (C) (ANS) four
    (D) six
28. The main deliberative organ of the UNO is the
    (A) International Court of Justice
    (B) Secretariat
    (C) Economic and Social Council
    (D) (ANS) General Assembly
29. Which of the following will produce weak government?
    (A) (ANS) coalition
    (B) two-party system
    (C) general elections
    (D) military
30. In democracies, political participation could be restricted on the basis of
    (A) religion
    (B) class
    (C) race
    (D) (ANS) age
31. Who founded the Unity Party of Nigeria?
    (A) Chief Ajasin
    (B) Pa Adesanya
    (C) Chief Falae
    (D) (ANS) Chief Awolowo
32. Free and fair election can exist where there is
    (A) double voting
    (B) (ANS) secret balloting
    (C) referendum
    (D) plebiscite
33. The Commission for Mediation, Conciliation and Arbitration is an organ of the
    (A) ECOWAS
    (B) (ANS) AU
    (C) Commonwealth
    (D) OPEC
34. The first president of Nigeria Republic was
    (A) Obafemi Awolowo
    (B) (ANS) Nnamdi Azikwe
    (C) Ahmadu Bello

(D) Ibrahim Babangida

35. A federal constitution is usually
    (A) flexible
    (B) unwritten
    (C) written and flexible
    (D) (ANS) written and rigid
36. One form of delegated legislation is
    (A) case laws
    (B) (ANS) statutory instruments
    (C) conventions
    (D) man-made laws
37. The end of each session of the legislature is called
    (A) dissolution
    (B) suspension
    (C) closure
    (D) (ANS) prorogation
38. Who among the following was dismissed from Action Group at the Jos Congress of February 1962?
    (A) Anthony Ehahoro
    (B) (ANS) Ladoke Akintola
    (C) Dauda Adegbenro
    (D) Adesoji Aderemi
39. The chief executive in a parliamentary government is known as the
    (A) president
    (B) speaker
    (C) (ANS) prime minister
    (D) governor-general
40. Pressure group use all the following techniques to achieve their objectives except
    (A) lobbying
    (B) demonstration
    (C) (ANS) coup d’état
    (D) strikes
41. Authority means
    (A) an automatic right to be obey
    (B) (ANS) legitimate right to obeyed
    (C) a civil right to obey orders
    (D) a civil right to be obeyed
42. Zionism resulted in the establishment of the state of
    (A) Iraq
    (B) Jordan
    (C) (ANS) Israel
    (D) Lebanon
    43.
    the An institution which seeks to redress people’s grievances against abuse of administration power is
    (A) (ANS) ombudsman
    (B) Directorate of Public Prosecution
    (C) Judicial Service Commission
43. To promote justice in a state, judges must
    (A) belong to the ruling party
    (B) punish people who oppose them
    (C) (ANS) enjoy security of tenure of office
    (D) not socialise with the people
44. The two main policies introduced by the French in West Africa were
    (A) indirect rule and direct rule
    (B) indirect rule assimilation
    (C) direct rule and indignant
    (D) (ANS) assimilation and association
45. The scholar, who defined sovereignty as an absolute power vested in an authority was
    (A) A,V. Dicey
    (B) (ANS) Jean Bodin
    (C) John Austin
    (D) Montesquieu
46. The head of the Commonwealth of Nations is
    (A) (ANS) Queen Elizabeth II
    (B) Don McKinnon
    (C) Tony Blair
    (D) David Cameroon
47. Which of the following countries had practised confederated system of government?
    (A) (ANS) Senegal and Gambia
    (B) Mali and Senegal
    (C) Ghana and Nigeria
    (D) none of the above
48. The 1978 Local Government Reform provided for a —term of office

(A) 4-year
(B) 5-year
(C) 2-year
(D) (ANS) 3-year

50. The exclusive list in a federal state includes

(A) education
(B) market
(C) (ANS) defence
(D) transportation

PRACTICE 2

Question 1
In a democratic system
Options
A) Majority Vote
B) Legal Sovereignty shouldn’t be unquestionable
C) Electoral college is always necessary
D) Minority vote but majority rule
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Legal sovereignty shouldn’t be unquestionable because in a democratic system, the powers of the legislature should be subject to necessary executive and judicial review respectively for the sale of checks and balance and accountability
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Question 2
That type of sovereignty that thrives on legitimacy is_________
Options
A) external sovereignty
B) vested on any form of government
C) legal sovereignty
D) within the people’s mandate
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Popular or political sovereignty belongs to the people through which the government by the constitution obtains all its powers and authorities.
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Question 3
The right of a citizen to seek redress means the right to________
Options
A) fair hearing
B) free access to legal materials
C) seek an appeal under another judgement
D) exercise his political liberty
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Seek an appeal under another judgement is the best answer because the right to seek redress as a fundamental element of rule of law must mean that aggrieved parties should be afforded the opportunity to have their cases re-examined especially by a court of higher authority.
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Question 4
An order compelling a lower court or public corporation to perform in accordance with legitimacy is called_________
Options
A) the writ of mandamus
B) the great writ
C) the writ of ombudsman
D) none of the above
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Writ (i.e Order) of Mandamus is usually issued to mandate a public authority to perform its statutory or the functions tied to its establishment. On the alternative, the great writ means the habeas corpus writ issued to order the release of a body or person unlawfully detained or imprisoned to stand judgement
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Question 5
A form of government which has its slogan to be ‘ruling of the best’ is__________
Options
A) democracy
B) aristocracy
C) timocracy
D) plutocracy
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Aristocracy being a rule by the Noble is believed to be a ruling of the best class of persons. Timocracy on the other hand, is believed by Aristotle to be a government strictly by property-owners with emphasis on honour and proprietary interest holdings.
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Question 6
Deconcentration of power means the_______
Options
A) sharing of powers among tiers of government
B) creation of semi autonomous units to govern other parts of a state
C) process of setting strategies or policies for the subsidiary territories in the state by putting recognized personnel in place
D) act of delegating powers and authority to component units that exist in a state
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Like the series of political office arrangements and portfolios in the Hausa/Fulani Empire i.e the Galadima, Waziri and the rest, deconcentration of power is obtainable unlike in devolution which Options B and D implicitly cover. Option A refers to Decentralization of powers.
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Question 7
The concept of the independence of the judiciary means that________
Options
A) The judiciary must not attempt to meddle into legislative and executive affairs
B) The powers of the courts can not be subjected of executive re-assessment
C) The sanctity of the office of the Judges and Justices must be preserved without prejudice
D) All means of legislative or executive influence on judicial decision making must be disabled
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Strictly speaking, independence of the judiciary isn’t restricted to the idea of non-interference by the legislature or executive or either of agencies on judicial decision making but particularly ensuring that all the gateways to the activities that may put the judiciary in a vulnerable state to the other arms of government must be shut down.
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Question 8
The political party serves as________
Options
A) A platform upon which the rights and liberties of the people can be attained
B) The group aggregating the interest of all in the state
C) A platform for rebelling against military rule
D) A platform for interest representation
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
The functional essence of political parties is to ensure that eventually the interests, entitlements and aspirations of the are realised through the emergence of a responsible government.
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Question 9
A party can be said to have national outlook if________
Options
A) it is ethnic based but has branches all over the state
B) its membership cut across ethnic boundaries
C) it is registered by the electoral commission as a national party
D) it is headed by individuals who are famous within and without the country
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Unlike the ethnic based philosophy, nature or outlook of the Action Group, Northern Peoples Congress in the First Republic, a multi-ethnic and all embracing political party is that with a Nation wide outlook
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Question 10
Argumentation, negotiation and deliberation on the subject matter of a bill begins at the_______
Options
A) third stage
B) first reading
C) committee stage
D) second reading
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
At the second stage or reading of a bill, the debate on the subject matter of concern of the bill begins, this process becomes heightened at the Third Stage and particularly at the Committee Stage.
Question 11
A vote of confidence means______
Options
A) the same as impeachment in a presidential system
B) the ability of the head of state to dissolve the parliament when collective responsibility fails to hold
C) the act of showing disapproval to the prime minister having breached the collective responsibility doctrine
D) the disapproval with dismissal in effect, the ministers and its head
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The implication of the passage of a vote of no confidence is to demonstrate disapproval which will lead to the retirement of the entire cabinet and its head.
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Question 12
A cabinet re-shuffle takes place……
Options
A) only when a motion of no confidence is passed
B) when dissolution is held
C) when prorogation and collective responsibility have their way
D) when the shadow cabinet fails in its effectiveness
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The membership of the Cabinet will be substituted or reshuffled especially there is dissolution of the cabinet in its entirely in a WestMinster system.
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Question 13
Popular political participation means________
Options
A) having majority of the people partaking in politics
B) having a good number of voters in the electoral process
C) the aggregate efforts of more than half of the citizens to partake in public debate and politics
D) the sum total of all activities exerted by the majority with enthusiasm actively involving in all aspects of their political sphere
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The sum total of all activities exerted by the majority with enthusiasm actively involving in all aspects of their political sphere is the best answer not only because is the all encompassing answer but also because popular political participation is the aggegration of all efforts of the citizens partaking delibrately and consciously in their governance affairs.
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Question 14
The area from which one or more members or representatives are elected in public offices is called the electoral ……..
Options
A) College
B) Constituency
C) Ward
D) District
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Constituency is the definition for the political area from which an individual is elected into a representative office.
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Question 15
Citizenship by naturalization________
Options
A) is the same as citizenship by marriage and registeration
B) refers to the process of attaining citizenship through honorary means
C) is the act of a non-citizen having satisfied the constitutional criteria becoming a legal member of a state
D) is the medium by which an alien through the judiciary receives certification and attains citizenship by birth
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Citizenship by naturalization provides the medium for non-citizens who have satisfied or fulfilled the requirements of good citizenship according to a State Law, to become Citizens.
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Question 16
The last measure used by the pressure groups issuing a condition to be satisfied within a stipulated time is called_______
Options
A) Lobbying
B) Ultimatum
C) Dialogue
D) Strike
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Pressure groups commonly issued deadlines(ultimatum) for the government to fulfill their requests and queries before embarking on strike action.
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Question 17
Generally, a political party with only manifestoes without fulfillment is a/an _ Options A) conservative party B) elitist party C) theocratic party D) republican party The correct answer is B. Explanation: Elitist is often used as a critique label, to describe a political party definitive of social class and rankings of top profiled politicians without much agenda for social justice. SHARE THIS APP THROUGH THE SHARE BOTTON ON THE APP THANKS Question 18 A form of government organized by a council of military officers is called__
Options
A) Militocracy
B) Stratocracy
C) Military Junta
D) Mobocracy
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
A military junta is a term sufficient to define an assembly of rulership organised by a council of militatry officers especially after a successful coup.
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Question 19
The non-stratified society in the pre-colonial era was that of the …….. where decisions were made________
Options
A) Yoruba, by the Oyomesi
B) Igbo, by consensus
C) Hausa/Fulani, by the Emir
D) Igbo, by the Okpara
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The Igbo precolonial was seen predominantly as acephalous and decisions were made based on popular consultations and acceptability.
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Question 20
The Hausa/Fulani Empire as a result of its heterogeneous population adopted_________
Options
A) A unitary system where full concentration of power prevailed
B) A federal structure where powers were decentralized although autocratic
C) A quasi federal structure with devolution
D) A partial federal set up with deconcentration
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The hausa/fulani empire for geo-political reasons apportioned different portfolios of authorities for serve the multiplicity of functions and administrative interests. The offices of Sarkin fada, as head of palace workers, Waziri as prime minister among others are pointers in this regard.
Question 21
Twelve States creation is a reknown achievement of the … regime
Options
A) Abdulsalam Abubakar’s
B) Ibrahim Babaginda’s
C) Yakubu Gowon’s
D) Murtala Mohammed’s
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Yakubu Gowon created 12 states for Nigeria in 1967.
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Question 22
The basis of the Nigerian foreign policy thrust particularly during the Independence Constitution era was … in nature
Options
A) afrocentric
B) eurocentric
C) neo-colonialistic
D) anti-apartheid
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Afrocentrism is the term used to describe the nature and interests of the Nigerian foreign policy targets withy preference for African neighboring States.
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Question 23
The Brussel conference in 1889/90 was based on______
Options
A) putting an end to slave trade
B) the scramble for Africa
C) furthering the decision on colonialism as previously discussed in the Berlin conference
D) deciding on how to penetrate Africa for economic adventurism
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
The Brussel Conference unlike the Berlin Conference was targeted at the reconsideration of the unjust virtues and vices occasioned by colonialism, thereby specifically seeking to eradicate slave trade and related activities.
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Question 24
According to Lewis Samuel, ‘is identified with pure conquest and unequivocal exploitation…’
Options
A) Neo colonialism
B) Progressive Imperialism
C) Regressive Imperialism
D) Colonialism
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The ideology of regressive imperialism is pure economic advantage and enrichment of the imperialists devoid of any ethical consideration.
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Question 25
One of the major defects of the Nigerian council which necessitated its replacement was that….
Options
A) the meetings of the council were poorly attended
B) the council could only make law for the southern protectorate
C) the executive council was powerful than it
D) the council was unrepresentative
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The unrepresentative nature and figurehead stance of the Nigerian Council’s membership is a stand-alone reason for the flaw of the platform. Most members were Whites who didn’t understand the interests of the people they seek to govern.
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Question 26
An important provision of the 1946 constitution was that it ……..
Options
A) conceived federalism for Nigeria
B) introduced federalism in Nigeria
C) introduced official majority in the legislative council for the 1st time
D) for the 1st time, introduced the office of the head of government at the regional level
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
The Authur Richard Constitution of 1946 set the foundational road map for a full fledged federalism for Nigeria starting essentially with the Lyttleton’s 1954 Constitution, and built upon thereafter.
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Question 27
In the all-Nigerian constitutional conference of 1950________
Options
A) all official members of the legislative council participated
B) it was resolved that the Nigerians federation be organized on ethnic basis
C) it was concluded that a quasi-federal structure should be developed for colonial Nigeria
D) all unofficial members of the legislative council participated
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Recognizing and acknowledging the relative importance of direct participation and contribution by people in their own affairs, the All-Nigerian Constitutional Conference marked an unprecendented attendance of all previously relegated unofficial members of the local legislature.
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Question 28
Implementations of the target programmes of the government is the primary duty of the _ a part of the
Options
A) Courts; Judiciary
B) Public Service; Civil Service
C) Civil Service; Public Service
D) Ministers; Ministry of Works
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The Civil Service is an integral branch of the public service which primarily functions to implement the policies of the government.
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Question 29
The most recent target plans and agenda of the United Nations are known as the___
Options
A) Resolution 2020
B) Millenium Development Goals
C) Agenda 2063
D) Sustainable Development Goals
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The 17 United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are the most recent aspirational global agenda for the sake of environmental sustainability, strong governance institutions and partnerships among related others.
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Question 30
The federal judge under the 1963 constitution could be removed by the______
Options
A) 2/3 majority of the National Assembly
B) Federal Judicial Service Commission
C) Nigerian Judicial Council
D) Executive president
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
2/3 majority support or vote of the National Assembly members was enough under the 1963 Constitution to remove a federal judge.
Question 31
Under the 1999 constitution, the Chief Law Officer and the Supreme Court Judge respectively are the_______
Options
A) Chief Justice, Chief Judge
B) Minister of Justice, Chief Judge
C) Attorney-General, Chief Justice
D) Chief Registrar of the Supreme Court, Chief Justice
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The Attorney General of the Federation is the same as the Minister of Justice while the judge at the Supreme Court level is the Chief Justice.
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Question 32
Which of the following was not responsible for the coalition between A. G and N. C. N. C.?
Options
A) The kano riot of 1953
B) Awolowo’s faction seeking to get N. P. C. out of power as opposed to Akintola’s option
C) contest for the federal election of 1964
D) Akintola’s faction which broke out of A. G. to form UPP
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
All the following options facilitated the coalition of the action Group and the National Council of the Nigerian Citizens except the The Kano Riot of 1953
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Question 33
In the 4th republic, the political parties were______
Options
A) NAP, PDP and APGA
B) PDP, APP, AD
C) UPGA, NNA, CAN
D) PDP, APGA, AD
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
With a multiparty system, the three political parties in 4th Republic were the Peoples Democratic Party, All Progressive Grand Alliance and the Alliance for Democracy.
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Question 34
The Economic and Financials Crime Commission (EFCC) scope and nature of duty may not extend to_______
Options
A) arresting suspects of cyber crime and online fraud
B) arresting the giver and the taker in a corruption case
C) conducting trials and punishing persons involved in corruption matters
D) investigating cases of substance and drug abuse intersecting with money laundering
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The EFCC as it is, is an executive body that must discharge its functions strictly in line with the reasons for its establishment. None of those functions extend to exercising judicial powers by punishing and conducting trials for suspects, which the strict duty of the court.
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Question 35
The Green Revolution programme was the effected manifesto of the …….. in 1979
Options
A) UPN
B) NPN
C) NPP
D) GNPP
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The National Party of Nigeria (NPN) is popularly known for its Green Revolution agricultural project in the late 1978s.
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Question 36
Nigeria’s federalism is often considered a flaw along the standard test of the Classical federalism ideology labelled along with_______
Options
A) Abraham Lincoln
B) K.C Wheare
C) Thomas Hobbes
D) Aristotle
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Kenneth Clinton Wheare is noted to having postulated that the fundamental, negotiable element of federalism is voluntary submission of rights by the component units in a federal set up.
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Question 37
The most representative organ of the united nations is the_______
Options
A) General Assembly
B) Security Council
C) Economic and Social Council
D) International Court of Justice
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
General Assembly. The UN General Assembly comprises the Heads of State and Government of all the State Parties in the UN body.
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Question 38
Executive Council of the African Union makes decision by_______
Options
A) 1/3 majority vote
B) discretion
C) consensus
D) the veto of the General Secretariat
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The Council of Ministers of the State Parties of the AU, the Executive Council makes decision primarily by consensus or by 2/3 majority support.
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Question 39
Amendment of the U. N. O. charter is the duty of the ……..
Options
A) Security Council
B) Secretariat
C) General Assembly
D) Trusteeship Council
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The UN General Assembly has the duty of amending relevant provisions of the UN Charter.
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Question 40
The fact that the office of the Chairman is rotational in ECOWAS makes it a perfect example of a/an ……..
Options
A) Cartel
B) Confederacy
C) Economic and Egalitarian political merger
D) Collegiate
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
A Collegiate is used to describe a rotational system of governance within a specific circle of qualified practitioners or representatives.
Question 41
The newspaper established by Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe to project the interest of nationalists was__________
Options
A) West African Pilot
B) Lagos Weekly Record
C) Daily Times
D) The Comet
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
The West African Pilot was the newspaper of Dr Azikiwe which served as a medium for propagating nationalist ideas and solidarity movements towards self-realization.
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Question 42
The delineation of electoral constituencies for reasons of political advantage is termed___________
Options
A) dissolution
B) prorogation
C) gerrymandering
D) delimitation
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Gerrymandering is the process of creating political constituencies in order to favour the electoral scores of a political party.
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Question 43
A predominant feature of the Precolonial governance system was that_________
Options
A) the British Indirect rule system penetrated it largely
B) the governance structures were largely undefined
C) the customary laws were prevalent
D) theocratic system was widely embraced
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Throughout the precolonial era in Nigeria, the native laws of the people governed them. They were largely unwritten and enforced by distinct units set in place for those purposes.
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Question 44
In most recent times, a seemingly workable solution to the Nigerian federal question is that of_______
Options
A) state police
B) restructuring
C) terrorism
D) revenue allocation
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Although Options A, B and C are recurring options for the Nigerian federalism, the clarion call for restructuring is louder than ever before.
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Question 45
The concept of delegated legislation is often criticised for all but one of the following reasons?
Options
A) it may lead to abuse of the powers
B) for reasons of sheer ignorance on legislative substance and procedure
C) for reasons of expertise rule making on specific subject matters
D) it is a clear violation of the separation of powers concept
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Delegated Legislation is supported largely because certain specialist idea is needed for the purpose of rule making on areas upon which the legislature may not have sufficient knowledge and skill in. Example, the INEC is empowered to make election guidelines and regulations aside the Electoral Act and in furtherance of its duties.
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Question 46
_ is noted for having said “man by nature is a political animal” Options A) Thomas Hobbes B) Aristotle C) Plato D) J.J Rosseau The correct answer is B. Explanation: According to Aristotle, every human interaction intersects with political determinations and interests. SHARE THIS APP THROUGH THE SHARE BOTTON ON THE APP THANKS Question 47 The term ultra vires means______
Options
A) the exercise of supervisory functions by the judiciary
B) a situation where a public authority dutifully performs its functions
C) a situation where a public authority acts beyond the scope of its duties
D) the act of exercising administrative competence over a matter
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
A public authority is said to have ultra vires when it has acted beyond the boundaries of its duties as provided for in its enabling law or as prescribed by the Executive.
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Question 48
Class stratification is a peculiar feature of___________
Options
A) capitalism
B) communism
C) socialism
D) feudalism
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
In a capitalist system, there is a clear differentiation gap between the ruling class and the ruled or the proletarates.
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Question 49
One of the following reasons is unlikely to necessitate the emergence of a federal system?
Options
A) social factors
B) geographical factors
C) cultural diversity
D) political sovereignty
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Other Options are necessary reasons for the adoption of a federal system except for sake of defining or strengthening the political sovereignty which invariably belongs to the citizens.
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Question 50
Lobbying is often a strategy adopted by________
Options
A) political parties
B) public corporations
C) public authorities
D) pressure groups
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Pressure groups often adopt lobbying as a negotiation mechanism with critical governement stakeholders and or legislators so that significant policies and laws giving effect to their interests are implemented.